MCAT 2009
MCAT 2009 by University of Health Sciences
PHYSICS
1. If
a) -1 b) -10 c) 10 d) 1
2. If inputs A=1, B=0 and output X=1, then it corresponds to the operation of a:
a) AND gate b) NAND gate c) XNOR gate d) NOR gate
3. The value of Stefan Boltzmann’s constant is:
a) 2.9 x 10^-3 m b) 5.67 x 10^-8 W c) 2.9 x 10^-3 W d) 6.67 x 10^-8 W
4. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by:
a) hf- φ=1/2 mv_max^2 b) E=mc^2 c) E=hc^2 d) hf=1/2 mv_max^2
5. In Compton Effect the value of
a) 〖1.43 ×10〗^(-11) m b) 〖2.56 ×10〗^(-12) m c) 〖2.43 ×10〗^(-12) m d) 〖3.46 ×10〗^(-6) m
6. If a particle of mass 5.0 mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/sec, then the de-Broglie wavelength will be:
a) 〖1.68 ×10〗^(-27) m b) 〖1.70 ×10〗^(-25) m c) 〖1.65 ×10〗^(-29) m d) 〖1.66 ×10〗^(-29) m
7. LASER is a device which can produce:
a) intense beam of light b) coherent beam of light c) intense, coherent, monochromatic beam of light d) monochromatic beam of light
8. A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as:
a) blue area b) bright area c) dark area d) red area
9. The emission of ϒ radiations from the nucleus is generally represented by the equation:
a) (_Z^A)X→ (_Z^A)X+ ϒ radiation b) (_Z^A)X→ (_Z-1^A)X+ ϒ radiation c) (_Z^A)X→ (_Z^A)X+ β particles d) (_Z^A)X→ (_Z^(A-1))X+ ϒ radiation
10. For intermediate energy of radiation the dominant process is:
a) Compton effect b) photoelectric effect c) pair production d) nuclear effect
11. The dimensions of gravitational constant ‘G’ are: a) 〖[ML〗^(-2) T^1] b) [〖ML〗^(-2) T^(-2)] c) [〖M^2 L〗^(-2) T^2] d) [〖M^(-1) L〗^3 T^(-2)]
12. Ultraviolet radiations cause:
a) severe crop damage b) decay of micro-organisms c) sun burn, blindness, skin cancer d) all of these
13. unit vector in the direction of vector 2i - 4j will be:
a) (2i - 4j)/(√10) b) (4i - 2j)/(√10) c) (i - 2j)/(√5) d) (i - 2j)/(√7)
14. If a force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in a direction making an angle 30 degree, X and Y components will be:
a) 〖 F〗_x= 8√3 and F_y= 4 b) F_x= 4√3 and F_y= 4 c) F_x= 4√3 and F_y= 8 d) F_x=8 and F_y= 4√3
15. Two waves of slightly different frequencies and and travelling in the same direction leads to :.
a) stationary waves b) beats c) interference d) all of the above
16. what is that we use to calculate the speed of distant stars and galaxies
a) Doppler effect b) beats c) interference d) all of the above
17. in young’s double slit experiment if the distance b/w the slits and spring is doubled then fring spacing becomes
a) zero b) double of the original value c) one d) half of the original value
18. In Michelson’s interferometer 792 bright fringes pass across the field of view when its moveable mirror is displaced through 0.233 mm using the equation L = mλ/2 the wavelength of light used is :
a) 588 nm b) 348 nm c) 620 nm d) 400 nm
19. In Michelson’s experiment the formula to calculate the speed of light is
a) C = 2fd b) C = 16f/d c) C = 2λf/d d) C=16fd
20. The information received at the other end of a fiber can be inaccurate due to ____ of the light
a) longer wave lengths b) intensity c) frequency d) dispersion of spreading
21. the pressure on the other side and everywhere inside the vessel will be same according to the
a) Pascal’s Law b) Charles Law c) Boyle’s Law d) Hook’s Law
22. The value of universal gas constant ‘R’ is
a) 8.314J/mol/K b) 1.38 J/mol/K c) 1.38 J/mol/K^2 d) ) 8.314 J/mol/K
23. The adiabatic process the first law of thermodynamics is
a) W= U+q b) Q=-W c) Q=W d) Q=- U
24. The entropy of the universe always ……..
a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) both a and b
25. The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric field is a measure of
a) Capacitance b) potential difference b/w two points c) intensity of electric field d) resistance b/w two points
26. In Milikan’s method the radius of droplet can be calculated by
a) r = √((9v_t)/2ρg) b) r^2=(9ɳv_t)/2ρg c) r^2=(9ɳv_t)/ρg d) r=(9ɳv_t)/2ρg
27. The scalar product of i and k is
a) zero b) 90 c) 1 d) -1
28. If the body rotating with uniform angular velocity then its torque is
a) zero b) max c) clockwise d) remains the same
29. Speed of light, radio waves and micro waves in vaccum is
a) 3x10^5 m/s b) 3x10^6 m/s c) 3x10^3 m/s d) 3x10^8 m/s
30. A body is moving with an initial velocity of 2 km/s after a time of 50 s its velocity becomes 1.5 km/s its acceleration will be
a) 30 m/s^2 b) 20 m/s^2 c) 40 m/s^2 d) 10 m/s^2
31. when a car moves with constant acceleration, the velocity time graph is a:
32. In elastic collision, when a massive body collides with light body light body at conditions m1 >> m2 and v2=0, then the change in velocity will be written as:
a) V_1^'≅-V_(1 , ) V_2^'≅V_2 b) V_1^'≅V_(1 , ) 〖V〗_2^'≅〖2V〗_2 c) V_1^'≅〖-V〗_(1 , ) 〖 V〗_2^'≅0 d) V_1^'≅V_(1 , ) V_2^'≅0
33. If a certain force acts on an object and changes its kinetic energy from 65 J to 130 J, thenwork done by that force will be:
a) 92.5 J b) 65 J c) 97.5 J d) 130 J
34. A bullet train is lifted above the rails due to magnetic effect, thus friction is reduced to minimum and speed can be enhanced up to:
a) 500 km/min b) 500 km/sec c) 1000 km/h d) 500 km/h
35. In a certain circuit, if the transistor has collector current of 10 mA and base current of 50 µA, then the current gain of the transistor is:
a) 250 b) 150 c) 100 d) 200
36. A signal that is applied at the inverting input terminal of an op-amplifier appears after amplification, at the output terminal with a phase shift of:
a) 0˚ b) 360˚ c) 270˚ d) 180˚
37. A body of mass 6 g falls under the as shown in figure. At point ‘B’ its energies will be
a) P.E = 300 J, K.E = 180 J b) P.E = 180 J, K.E = 300 J c) P.E = 230 J, K.E = 250 J d) P.E = 250 J, K.E = 230 J
38. Solar energy at normal incidence outside the earth’s atmosphere is about:
a) 2.5 km^(-2) b) 0.6 km^(-2) c) 1.4 km^(-2) d) 1.0 km^(-2)
39. Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radius 2 m and angular velocity 8 rad/sec is:
a) 16 m/s b) 4 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 6 m/s
40. What is torque
a) τ= 〖mr〗^2 α b) τ=〖mr〗^2/α c) τ= mrα d) τ= 〖mr〗^2 ѡ
41. When the spaceship rotates with _________ frequency, artificial gravity like earth is produced for the inhabitants of spaceship:
a) 2π √(R/g) b) 2π √(l/g) c) 1/2π √(R/g) d) 1/2π √(g/R)
42. A tiny droplet of oil of density ρ and radius r falls through air under force of gravity. If velocity of air is ɳ, the terminal velocity acquired by the droplet is give by:
a) v_t=( 4〖gr〗^2 ρ)/9ɳ b) v_t=( 2〖gr〗^2 ρ)/9ɳ c) v_t=(9ɳ r^2 ρ)/4g d) v_t=(9ɳ r^2 ρ)/2g
43. Torricelli’s theorem be written as:
a) v_2=√(2g(h_1-h_2)) b) v_2=√(2g(h_2-h_1)) c) v_2=√(g(h_1-h_2)) d) v_2=√(g(h_2-h_1))
44. If the mass attached to the spring becomes four times, the time period of vibration becomes:
a) one fourth b) 3/4 c) half d) double
45. In a microwave oven, the wave produced has a wavelength of 12 cm at frequency of:
a) 2452 Hz b) 2455 Hz c) 2456 Hz d) 2450 Hz
46. Speed of waves is equal to:
a) fλ b) λ/T c) both a and b d) λT
47. A particle carrying charge 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. calculate the energy required by it:
a) 9.6 ×〖10〗^(-19) J b) 1.6 ×〖10〗^(-19) J c) 9.1 ×〖10〗^(-19) J d) 6.0 ×〖10〗^(-19) J
48. The deviation of I-V graph from straight line is due to:
a) decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance b) decrease in temperature and increase in resistance c) increase in temperature and increase in resistance d) increase in temperature and decrease in resistance
49. The fractional change in resistance per kelvin is known as:
a) temperature coefficient of resistance b) linear coefficient of expansion c) thermal coefficient d) volumetric coefficient of expansion
50. The energy supplied by the cell to the charge in a magnetic field is:
a) heat energy into electrical energy b) chemical energy into electrical energy c) solar energy into electrical energy d) mechanical energy into electrical energy
51. Force experienced by a moving charge in a magnetic field is:
a) F=BA cos θ b) F=q(v×B) c) F= µo NI d) F=I(L×B)
52. The value of permeability of free space
a) 4π×〖10〗^(-7) WbA^(-1) m^(-1) b) 4π×〖10〗^7 WbA^(-2) m^(-2) c) 4π×〖10〗^(-7) WbA^(-2) m^(-1) d) 4π×〖10〗^7 WbA^(-1) m^(-2)
53. What shunt resistance must be connected across a galvanometer of 20 Ω resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0 A current, so as to convert it into Ammeter of range 10.0 A.
a) 5 Ω b) 2 Ω c) 3 Ω d) 4 Ω
54. The current measuring part of Avometer contains a number of low resistances connected:
a) at an angle of 180˚ with the galvanometer b) parallel to the galvanometer c) at an angle of 45˚ with the galvanometer d) perpendicular to the galvanometer
55. A charge of 2 µC moves with a velocity of 2 m/s in the direction of a magnetic field of 2 tesla. The force that will act on it will be:
a) 2 N b) 8 N c) 0 N d) 6 N
56. We have two coils placed close to each other. When we switch on the battery connected to primary coil, while keeping the sliding contact of rheostat at fixed position, the reading of galvanometer:
a) first increases then becomes zero b) remains zero c) first increase then becomes constant at certain value d) increases with the passage of time
57. Power losses in a transformer can be minimized:
a) by increasing turn ratio b) by decreasing turn ratio c) by stopping the flow of eddy currents d) using material of the core whose hysteresis area is large
58. In R-L series circuit the phase difference b/w applied voltage and current is given by the angle θ which is:
a) θ=〖tan〗^(-1)〖(LR/ω〗) b) θ=〖〖tan〗^(-1) 〖ωt/R)〗 c) θ=〖〖tan〗^(-1) (ωLR) d) θ=〖tan〗^(-1)〖(ωR/L)〗
59. Frequency of L-C circuit will resonate under the driving action of antenna by adjusting the value of:
a) capacitance b) impedance c) resistance d) inductance
60. To convert Si crystal into P-type semiconductor, which group element must be doped:
a) trivalent element b) fourth group element c) second group element d) pentavalent element
CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following formation is an exothermic reaction?
a) H_aq^+ + OH_aq^- → H2O_l b) 1/2 H_2(g)→ H_g c) 1/2 Cl_2(g)→ Cl_g d) Na_g→ Na_g + e^-
62. The rate equation determined experimentally for this reaction:
Is, Rate = k[(CH3)3 C-Br]
Hence it is which of the following.
a) fractional order b) pseudo first order c) 2nd order d) 1st order
63. Equilibrium constant
H2O⇌H^+ + OH^-
Can be written as follows:
a) Kc=[H^+]/[OH^- ][H2O] b) Kc=[H^+][OH^- ]/[H2O] Kc=[H^+][OH^- ]/[OH^- ] d) Kc=[
64. The protonation of carboxylic acid is:
65. Each molecule of hemoglobin is made up of nearly ________ atoms.
a) 11000 b) 10000 c) 68000 d) 6800
66. A limiting reactant is one which is:
a) mostly a cheaper substance and taken in larger quantity
b) is consumed earlier and controls the amount of product to be formed
c) gives greatest number of moles of product
d) is left behind after a chemical reaction
67. During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapours of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber is around _____ torr:
a) 〖10〗^(-7) b) 〖10〗^(-2) c) 〖10〗^(-3) d) 1
68. The acid which can be purified by sublimation is:
a) acetic acid b) benzoic acid c) oxalic acid d) citric acid
69. Paper chromatography is used for:
a) elemental analysis b) industrial purification c) qualitative analysis d) structural analysis
70. In the process of respiration there is application of:
a) Dalton’s law b) Boyle’s law c) Charle’s law d) Graham’s law
71. The formula for acrylonitrile is:
a) CH2=CH-CN b) CH3-CH2-CN c) CH3-CH32-CH2-CN d) CH3-CN
72. During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is:
a) NO2- c) NO3
73. Which compound is most reactive one:
a) ethyne b) ethene c) benzene d) ethane
74. Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium with alkyl halides in the presence of:
a) dry ether b) CS2 c) CCl4 d) alcohol
75.
X and Y are:
a) ZnO+Al2o3 and 450 C: 200atm b) ZnO+Cr2O3 and 450 C: 200atm c) Al2O3+Cr2O3 and 200 C: 200atm d) ZnO+Cr2O3 and 200 C: 200atm
76. When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is,
a) n-butane b) iso-butane c) propane d) alcohol
77. Phenol reacts with concentrated
a) ortho hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid b) ortho and para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid c) meta hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid d) para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid
78. Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol by adding:
a) Br2 / H2O b) Cl2 / H2O FeSO4 d) FeCl2
79. In the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde, cupric chloride acts as:
a) initiator b) promoter c) catalyst d) reactant
80. When the acetone is heated in the presence of
a) maleic acid and fumeric acid b) acetic acid and formic acid c) formic acid and oxalic acid d) oxalic acid and acetic acid
81. Which of the following compounds react with Tollen’s reagent?
a) CH3-COOH
82. Which acid is used in the manufacture of plastics?
a) carbolic acid b) acetic acid c) carbonic acid d) oxalic acid
83. In conjugated protein molecules , the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein groups which are called:
a) prosthetic groups b) aldehydic groups c) hydrogen bonding d) peptide linkage
84. Micro nutrients are required in quantity ranging from:
a) 6-600 g / acre b) 6-600 kg / acre c) 4-40 g / acre d) 4-40 kg / acre
85. Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for:
a) mango b) tobacco c) wheat d) rice
86. The yellow color of photochemical smog is due to presence of:
a) nitrogen dioxide b) dinitogen trioxide c) nitrous oxide d) nitric oxide
87. The incineration can reduce the volume of waste by:
a) one half b) two third c) not effected d) one third
88. __________ %age of known universe is in the plasma state.
a) 30 b) 99 c) 50 d) 80
89. Absolute zero is not attainable. Current attempts has resulted in temperature as low as:
a) 10^-4 K b) 10^-3 K c) 10^-2 K d) 10^-5 K
90. Electron gas theory was proposed to explain the bonding in _________ solids.
a) molecular b) ionic c) covalent d) metallic
91. In proteins, there are on the average ________ amino acid units for each turn of the helix.
a) 25 b) 27 c) 21 d) 23
92. In atomic particles:
a) mass of neutron is almost equal to the mass of electron b) e/m of proton is almost equal to the e/m of electron
c) mass of proton is almost equal to the mass of electron d) charge of neutron is almost equal to the charge of electron
93. The extent of bending of light ray after passing through prism depends upon ________ of photons.
a) wavelength b) wave number c) energy d) frequency
94. Splitting of spectral lines in closely spaced lines in the presence of magnetic field is called:
a) stark effect b) Zeeman effect c) photoelectric effect d) Compton effect
95. A bond is not formed:
a) when both forces become equal to each other b) when repulsive forces become equal to zero c) when attraction forces dominate repulsive forces d) when repulsive forces dominate attractive forces
96. If the electronegativity difference b/w the bonded atoms is zero, the bond b/w the two atoms is:
a) polar b) partially ionic c) non polar d) both b and c
97. VSEPR theory helps in explaining:
a) attraction b/w atoms b) size of molecule c) nature of bond d) shape of molecule
98. Which of the following formation is an endothermic reaction?
a) C(gas) H2O(liq) -------> H2(gas) + O2(gas) c) N2(gas) + 3H2(gas)------> 2NH3(gas) d) none of the above
99. solubility of KClO3 can be decreased in H2O by:
a) removing
100. 36 g of HCl dissolves in 100 g of solution, the density of HCl is 1.19 g/cm3. The molar mass of HCl solution will be:
a) 36.5 g/mol b) 100 g/mol c) 38.0 g/mol d) 11.73 g/mol
101. The heat of hydration decreases with the increase in:
a) number of neutrons b) size of cations c) size of atomic radii d) number of electrons
102. Stronger the oxidizing agent greater is the:
a) redox potential b) EMF of the cell c) oxidation potential d) reduction potential
103. The EMF produced by galvanic cell is known as:
a) redox potential b) oxidation potential c) cell potential d) none of the above
104. In nickel-cadmium battery, the cathode is composed of:
a) Cd b) Ni(OH)2 c) Ni d) NiO2
105. Concentrated solution of sugar undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by an enzyme called:
a) zymase b) invertase c) cellulase d) urease
106. In modern periodic table the elements in group IIB are:
a) Zn, Cd, Pb b) Zn, Cd, Ba c) Zn, Cd, Hg d) Zn, Cd, Bi
107. Hydrogen losses one electron to form:
a) H+ b) H2^-2 d) H-
108. Which metal occurs as skeletal material in egg shells?
a) calcium b) barium c) beryllium d) strontium
109. At which conditions are hydrides of alkaline earth metals are formed?
a) at high pressure b) at room temperature c) at high temperature d) none of the above
110. Which metal carbide is formed readily by the direct reaction?
a) rubidium b) sodium c) potassium d) lithium
111. Asbestos is hydrated __________ magnesium silicate.
a) calcium b) aluminum c) barium d) carbon
112. Formula of lead sub oxide is:
a) Pb2O3 b) Pb2O c) PbO
113. Phosphine can be produced by ________ of phosphorus acid.
a) hydration b) hydrolysis c) oxidation d) reduction
114. Which noble gas is used in bactericidal lamps?
a) Xenon b) Argon c) radon d) krypton
115. The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is:
a) tin plating b) zinc plating c) nickel plating d) copper plating
116. Color of the transition metal ions / compounds is due to the electrons present in:
a) d-orbital b) p-orbital c) s-orbital d) none of the above
117. chromyl chloride test is performed to confirm:
a)
118. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybrid orbitals?
a) sp2
119. Which of the following compounds show cis-trans isomerism?
a) 1-butane b) 1-hexane c) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane d) propane
120. CH3-CH2-MgBr + H2O ------> MgBrOH + X
Where ’X’ is:
a) propane b) butane c) methane d) ethane
ENGLISH
121. The traveler ___________ a long detour to water the camels.
a) took b) saw c) sought d) made
122. Shah Jahan __________ the great mosque at Delhi.
a) founded b) raised c) created d) established
123. He was ____________ of theft in the court.
a) charged b) reported c) blamed d) accused
124. He __________ on a very extraordinary ambition.
a) arrived b) decided c) came d) hit
SPOT THE ERROR
125. He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various fields.
a b c d
126. One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.
a b c d
127. His 1st adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.
a b c d
128. He has been working in this department since the last five years without any break.
a b c d
129. He reached at Lahore only a few days ago, on last Friday, to be exact, and is going to stay here for some time.
a b c d
130. There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd distinguished, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.
a b c d
Choose the correct sentence.
131.
a) E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.
b) E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.
c) E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.
d) E-mail is a relatively new means of communication.
132.
a) As she said the computer was programmed by mona.
b) Just like she said the computer was programmed by mona.
c) As like she said the computer was programmed by mona.
d) Just like she had said the computer was programmed by mona.
133.
a) The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.
b) The remain of the body was thrown into the sea.
c) The remains of the body were thrown to the sea.
d) The remains of the body was thrown in the sea.
134.
a) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee will leave.
b) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee left.
c) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee may leave.
d) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee leaves.
135.
a) Reaching for the book, the ladder slipped out from under him.
b) Reaching for the book, the ladder slipped out from him.
c) When he reached for the book, the ladder slipped out from under him.
d) While he was trying to reach for the book, the ladder slipped from under him.
136.
a) After the sun has set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat.
b) After the sun had been set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat.
c) After the sun would set behind the mountain, a cool breeze would sprang up and brought relief from the heat.
d) After the sun set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat.
137.
a) Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he is in my position.
b) Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he has been in my position.
c) Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he has my position.
d) Masood told me that he would hire more salesmen if he had been in my position.
138.
a) They felt bad while leaving their friends.
b) They felt badly about leaving their friends.
c) They felt very badly about leaving their friends.
d) They felt badly while leaving their friends.
139.
a) He consumed his heart on this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
b) He consumed his heart at this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
c) He consumed his heart for this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
d) He consumed his heart over this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.
140.
a) He then struck the man himself a smaller blow, which felled him on the earth like a log.
b) He then struck the man himself a smaller blow, which felled him over the earth like a log.
c) He then struck the man himself a smaller blow, which felled him to the earth like a log.
d) He then struck the man himself a smaller blow, which felled him in the earth like a log.
Select the nearest meaning.
141. Aghast
a) Critical b) Happy c) Reluctant d) Horrified
142. Invidious
a) Unbreakable b) unpleasant c) fair d) interesting
143. Impromptu
a) Arriving at the right time b) done without preparation
c) showing sign of being good d) Wretched
144. Discernment
a) The system of controlling a country b) the act of encouraging somebody c) The ability to show good judgment d) the ability to show no concern
145. Neologism
a) A new word b) A brief summary c) Pleasant remark d) archaic expression
146. Furtive
a) Furious b) secretive c) easy d) familiar
147. Bourgeois
a) Belonging to the bureaucratic class b) belonging to the upper class c) belonging to the middle class d) belonging to the lower class
148. Ruminate
a) Eat Greedily b) work lazily c) think deeply d) run fast
149. Embellish
a) beautify b) finish c) nominate d) weaken
150. Parable
a) impossible b) Allegory c) Sociable d) suitable
151 . Which of the following condition best describe the active membrane potential?
152. If DNA strand is GCTATGG mRNA stand synthesis from it would be
a) CGAUCGG b) CGATACC c) CHTATGC d) CGUTCC
153. Tissues rejection is executed by
a) Both B and T lymphocytes b) B- Lymphocytes c) T lymphocytes d) Monocytes
154. Which of the following statement best describe the function of Sino atrial node?
a) It sends electrical impulses to ventricle muscles causing both verticals to contract
b) It consist of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibers
c) It us present at the upper end of the left atrium
d) It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract
155. A central cavity of kidney where urine is collected after filtration is known as:
a) ureter b) urethra c) pelvis d) urinary bladder
156. Aldosterone plays role in:
a) transport of water b) uptake od sodium in loop of henle c) Transport of P ions into kidney d) Reabsorption of water
157. Technique used for non-surgical removal of kidney is called:
a) ultrasound b) dialysis c) lithotripsy d) x-ray.
158. Microcephaly, the small sized skull is due to:
a) nutritional causes b) skeleton damage c) hormonal causes d) genetic defect
159. The joints that allow movements in several directions are:
a) hinge joints b) fibrous joints c) ball and socket joints d) cartilaginous joints
160. The collagen fibers of bone are harden by deposit of:
a) Calcium phosphate b) calcium carbonate c) calcium oxalate d) calcium bicarbonate
161. Which of the following neurotransmitters lies outside the central nervous system?
a) serotonin b) acetylcholine c) dopamine d) adrenaline
162. Which hormonal pair shares a common hypothalamic releasing factor?
a) STH and LH b) ACTH and LH c) FSH and STH d) FSH and LH
163. Which of the following will happen if fertilization does not occur?
a) menopause starts b) corpus luteum degenerates c) FSH secretion is increased d) progesterone secretion is increased
164. Newborn infant may acquire serious eye infections, if his / her mother has:
a) genital herpes b) AIDS c) gonorrhea d) syphilis
165. at the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells form a local thickening known as:
a) Henson’s node b) gastrcoele c) primitive ridge d) primitive gut
166. In plants, the plants the red light favors:
a) enhancement of cell differentiation b) elongation of cells c) maturation of the cells d) enhancement of cell division
167. The reaction b/w the phosphate group of one nucleotide and hydroxyl group of another is a _________ synthesis in DNA molecule.
a) dehydration b) rehydration c) oxidation d) reduction
168. Enzyme which attaches the okazaki fragments to lagging strand is called:
a) restriction endonuclease b) primase c) DNA helicase d) DNA ligase
169. In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is not degraded because of defective enzyme:
a) phenylalanine hydrogenase b) phenylalanine phosphatase c) phenylalanine hydroxylase d) phenylalanine oxidase
170. Males with XYY chromosome suffer from:
a) klinefelter’s syndrome b) Jacob’s syndrome c) down’s syndrome d) Edward’s syndrome
171. Internal program of events and sequences of morphological changes by which cell commits suicide is collectively called:
a) necroses b) epistasis c) metastasis d) apoptosis
172. Phragmoplast is formed from vesicle which originates from:
a) smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex c) ribosome d) rough endoplasmic reticulum
173. When phenotype of heterozygote is in b/w the phenotypes of both the homozygote parents, it is called:
a) incomplete dominance b) epistasis c) pleiotropy d) codominance
174. Which is correct about ‘ ’ blood?
a) will produce anti-Rh antibodies if given
175. Which is true about pattern baldness?
a) It is autosomal recessive disease in males b) It is autosomal dominant disease in males c) it is X-linked disease d) it is Y-linked disease
176. temperature insensitive (thermo stable) enzyme used in PCR is:
a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase III c) DNA ligase d) Taq polymerase
177. Cloning is a form of:
a) parthenogenesis b) apomixis c) sexual reproduction d) asexual reproduction
178. Antigens to treat non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are produced by:
a) wheat plant b) rice plant c) tobacco plant d) corn plant
179. The survival of an organism during the struggle for existence is not random, but depends upon:
a) its genetic constitution b) its ability to acquire characters
c) its ability to over-produce d) its ability to over-eat
180. Evolutionary relationship amongst species are reflected in their:
a) DNA and proteins b) RNAs and proteins c) DNA and genes d) DNA and RNAs
181. IF all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be:
a) Random in population’s pool b) fixed in population’s pool c) random in a species d) fixed in the gene pool
182. Diseases in living organism which are caused by parasites are called:
a) disinfestations b) antisepsis c) infections d) infestations
183. The nutrient cycles are also called:
a) biogeochemical cycles b) biochemical cycles c) bio element cycles d)geochemical cycles
184. The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is determined by:
a) water b) light and nutrients c) light d) nutrients
185. What is the drawback of nuclear energy?
a) it causes radiation pollution b) it is not long lasting c) it is very expensive d) it pollutes the air
186. Arteriosclerosis is:
a) a metabolic disorder b) a degenerative disorder c) an infectious disorder d) a nutritional deficiency disorder
187. Antibiotics act against:
a) bacterial diseases b) allergies c) bacterial and viral diseases d) viral diseases
188. Immediate source of energy for cellular metabolism is:
a) lipids b) ATP c) proteins d) carbohydrates
189. Hemoglobin exhibits:
a) secondary structure b) primary structure c) quaternary structure d) tertiary structure
190. Pepsin enzyme is produced in an inactive form and is activated in situation when it is required because:
a) not produced in complete form b) it is quite capable of destroying cell’s internal structure c) it does not work efficiently at that time d) none of the above
191. Enzyme after catalysis detaches itself from the product:
a) completely b) incompletely c) changed d) unchanged
192. A group of ribosomes attached to the messenger RNA is known as:
a) ribosome b) lysosome c) nucleosome d) polysome
193. Detoxification of harmful drugs within the cell is done by:
a) nucleus b) smooth surface endoplasmic reticulum c) ribosomes d) food vacuoles
194. Tay - Sach’s disease is due to the absence of an enzyme that is involved in the catabolism of
a) proteins b) carbohydrates c) lipids d) acetic acid
195. Symptoms of herpes simplex is:
a) abdominal pain b) fever c) failure of immune system d) vascular lesions in the epithelial layer
196. The major cell affected by the HIV is:
a) leukocyte b) lymphocyte c) helper T-lymphocyte d) B-lymphocyte
197. _____________ are used as important vectors in genetic engineering.
a) plasmids b) ribosome c) nucleosome d) mesosomes
198. Which of the following is aerobic bacterium?
a) spirochete b) E coli c) pseudomonas d) chemosynthetic
199. The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of fresh water ponds and obtain energy from:
a) anaerobic bacteria b) ethanogenic bacteria c) methanogenic bacteria d) chemosynthetic bacteria
200. A large group of parasitic protozoa, some of which cause serious diseases such as malaria in humans are:
a) apicomplexans b) actinopodes c) ciliates d) amoebas
201. Penicillin is obtained from:
a) penicillium notatum b) neurospora c) aspergillus d) apicomplexans
202. Which of the following compound is less resistant to decay?
a) ligase b) starch c) chitin d) cellulose
203. _________ are bio-indicators of air pollution:
a) conidiophores b) lichens c) fungi d) mycorrhizae
204. The gymnosperms are called ‘naked seeded’ plants because they bear:
a) antheridia b) ovules c) fruits d) archegonia
205. The integumented indehiscent mega sporangium is called:
a) seed b) mega gametophyte c) archegonium d) ovule
206. Pulses are present in the family:
a) caesalpiniaceae b) fabaceae c) gramineae d) mimosaceae
207. It is end parasite of humans, cattle and pig which completes its life cycle in two hosts:
a) tape worm b) Aurelia c) liver fluke d) planaria
208. coelom is a cavity lined by:
a) mesoderm b) endoderm c) epiderm d) ectoderm
209. Which of the following molecule is reduced by accepting hydrogen in Calvin cycle?
a) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate b) ribulose biphosphate c) 3-phosphoglycerate d) 1, 3-biphosphoglycerate
210. The molecule formed after the first phosphorylation during glycolysis is:
a) fructose-6-phosphate b) fructose-1, 6-biphosphate c) glucose-1-phosphate d) glucose-6-phosphate
211. Kreb’s cycle in mitochondria takes place in
a) cytosol b) matrix c) outer membrane d) inner membrane
212. Tse-tse fly causes the sleeping sickness and skin diseases by transmitting:
a) plasmodium b) trypanosoma c) insects d) anopheles
213. At the junction b/w esophagus and stomach there is a special ring of muscles called:
a) cardiac sphincter b) ileocolic sphincter c) esophageal sphincter d) pyloric sphincter
214. Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:
a) gastrin b) secretin c) glucagon d) insulin
215. Like pepsin, trypsin is also secreted as inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by:
a) enterokinase b) lipase c) chyme d) erypsin
216. During the photorespiration, the glycolate is converted into glycine in a structure of cell called:
a) Golgi bodies b) glyoxisome c) mitochondria d) peroxisome
217. The respiratory pigment which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen, is:
a) myoglobin b) globin c) hemoglobin d) hemocyanin
218. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form of:
a) bicarbonate b) carboxyhemoglobin c) CO2 d) blood plasma protein
219. Antibodies are actually:
a) globular proteins b) glycoproteins c) fibrous proteins d) glycolipids
220. Heparin prevents blood clots and is released by:
a) eosinophills b) monocytes c) neutrophils d) basophils
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