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Biology Chapter 1 and 3


                                  BIOLOGY                    Ch. 1 & 3
1)       Living things posses all of the following characteristics except.
         a)       Can acquire and use energy                  
         b)       Cannot maintain fairly constant internal environment
         c)       Contain genetic program of their characteristics
         d)       Responding to changes in their environments
2)       All of the following are different branches of Biology except.
         a)       Geography         b)       Evolution         c)       Palaeontology  d)          Genetics
3)       No. of Bio elements is
         a)       92                b)       16                c)       4                 d)       104
4)       65% of bio-elements is
         a)       Hydrogen          b)       carbon            c)       nitrogen          d)       oxygen
5)       Which one of the following element is not found in traces in living bodies.
         a)       zinc              b)       copper            c)       calcium           d)       manganese
6)       Which one of the following is the direct source of energy in living bodies?
         a)       ATP               b)       glucose           c)       amino acid        d)       faty acid
7)       Sub-cellular structures are known as
         a)       Cells             b)       Organelles        c)       Tissue            d)       Organ
8)       All of the following are double membrane bounded organelles except.
         a)       Mitochondria b)            Chloroplast       d)       Vacuole           d)       nucleus
9)       Group of different tissues organized to perform a function with great efficiency is
         known as
         a)       An organism   b)           An organ          c)       Tissue            d)       Population
10)      All of the following functions are performed by rot except
         a)       Anchor the plant                             b)       Manufacture food
         c)       Storage of food                              d)       Procuring of minerals
11)      Which organ of plant is involved in producing next generation sexually?
         a)       Root              b)       Leaf              c)       Stem              d)       Flower
12)      Radio active isotopes contained by older sediment layer is
         a)       Nil               b)       Equal to younger sediment layer              
         c)       Less than younger sediment layer             d)   Greater than younger sediment layer
13)      Plants having foreign DNA incorporated into their cells are known as
         a)       Clone             b)       Transgenic plants          c)       Eugenic plant  d)          Mutant
14)      In chemotherapy
         a)       Cancerous parts are exposed to short wave radiation
         b)       Administrating certain anti-cancerous chemicals to the patient
         c)       Gene therapy                                 d)       All of these
15)      Cloning could make
         a)       Multiple copies of desired genotype
         b)       Used to produce genetically identical cattle
         c)       Commercial production of valuable animals
         d)       All of these
16)      Degradation of toxic materials by living organisms is known as
         a)       Integral disease management                  b)       Bioremediation
         c)       Molecular biology                            d)       Micro biology
17)      One of the following is not a characteristic of a hypothesis  
         a)       Experiments can prove it true or false
         b)       It can be converted into a theory or a law
         c)       It is less explanatory than theory or law
         d)       It is always a religious idea
18)      A scientific law is
         a)       A uniform of constant fact of nature                  b)       Virtually irrefutable theory
          c)       True only under certain conditions                d)      True about all of these  
19)     Which of the following is not included in biology  
        a)       Study of animals                         b)       study of plants  
        c)       Study of atoms and molecules             d)       Study of bacteria and virus  
20)     A systematized knowledge is known as  
        a)       Religion        b)       Philosophy      c)       Science         d)       Imagination  
21)     All of the following do not produce transgenic organism except  
        a)       Introduction of desired gene in the organism  
        b)       Replacement of nucleus of unfertilized egg with a diploid of nucleus somatic cell  
        c)       Produced from zygote  
        d)       Asexual reproduction  
22)     All of the following can treat cancer except  
        a)       Radiotherapy  b)         Chemotherapy c)          Gene therapy   d)        Antibiotics  
23)     Technique used to determine nutrients requirements of plants  
        a)       Genetic engineering                      b)       Bioremediation  
        c)       Hydroponics culture                      d)       Chemotherapy  
24)     Scientific ways to form hypothesis  
        a)       intuition                                b)       esthetic preference      
        c)       comparison and analogy with other processes                       d)       All of these  
25)     Which of the following is true about malonic acid as inhibitor  
        a)       Attached at position other than active side  
        b)       Attached on succinic acid  
        c)       Block succinic acid dehydrogenase  
        d)       Is irreversible inhibitor  
26)     An enzyme that undergoes reversible changes in shape and in catalytic activity when
        control substance binds is  
        a)       Inhibited enzyme                 b)      Allosteric enzyme  
        c)       Holoenyzme                       d)      None of these  
27)     Optimum temperature for pepsin is  
        a)       3      b)      37C             c)      38C             d)      40C
28)     A biochemical reaction would proceed at a very slow speed making life impossible in
        the absence of  
        a)       Enzyme          b)       Cofactor        c)       Coenzyme        d)  Substrate  
29)     Every  enzyme  by  virtue  of  its  specificity  recognizes  and  reacts  with  a  special
        chemical substance called  
        a)       substrate       b)       Apoenzyme       c) Holoenzyme            d) Coenzyme  
30)     At  low  concentration  of  substrate  the  enzyme  catalyzed  reaction  rate  is  directly
        proportional to the availability of  
        a)       Substrate       b)       Enzyme          c)       coenzyme        d)       Activator  
31)     The essential raw material from which the coenzymes is made  
        a)       Metal ions      b)       Vitamins        c)       proteins        d)      Carbohydrates  
32)     The “Induce Fit Model” for enzyme action was put forward by  
        a)       Emil Fisher     b)  F. Sanger            c)  Koshland             d) Melvin Calvin  
33)     The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction  
        a)       Is constant under all conditions  
        b)       Decreases as substrate concentration increases  
        c)       Cannot be measured  
        d)       Can be reduced by inhibitors  
34)     The catalytic activity is restricted to a small portion of enzyme structure known as  
        a)       substrate       b)       Cofactor        c)       Active site     d)  Prosthetic group  
35)     The active site of an enzyme is made up of  
        a)       Only one definite region  
        b)       Two definite regions  
        c)       Three definite regions  
        d)       Four definite regions  
36)     Every enzyme functions most effectively over a narrow range of pH known as the:
        a)       Optimum pH   b)   Maximum pH             c)   Minimum pH          d)  Low grade pH
37)     Which structure acts as a bridge between enzyme and its substrate  
        a)       Cofactor                         b)      Binding site  
        c)       Apoenzyme                        d)      Catalytic site  
38)     Which of the following acts as an enzyme inhibitor  
        a)       Salt            b)       Poison          c)       Sugar           d)       Soda  
                                                                                                         
39)     Enzymes                          the activation energy of the reactions  
        a)      Increase        b)      Decrease        c)     Change          d)   Has no effect  
40)     Lock and key model was proposed in  
        a)       1595           b)       1959           c)      1890           d)       1980

                                                                                                     
                                                                                                                

BIOLOGY Chapter 21, 23

                         BIOLOGY                   Ch. 21, 23
1)       The process o mitosis ensures  
         a)       Change in nature of genes          
         b)       A reduction in the number of chromosomes  
         c)       An increase in the size of cells
         d)       Same number of chromosomes in daughter cells  
2)       What is the importance of the fact that meiosis occurs during the formation
         of gametes  
         a)       It allows the no. of sex cells to become half
         b)       It prevents variation appearing the phenotype  
         c)       It produces haploid sex cells in preparation of fertilization  
         d)       It prevents asexual reproduction  
3)       In  which  of  the  following,  daughter  nuclei  contain  only  one  chromosome
         from each original pair of the chromosomes  
         a)       mitosis but not meiosis                      b)      meiosis but not mitosis  
         c)       both mitosis and meiosis                     d)       neither mitosis and meiosis  
4)       Mitotic apparatus of a plant cell consists of  
         a)       spindle fibers                               b)       centrioles  
         c)       aster                                        d)       all of these  
5)       Mitosis takes place during  
         a)       healing of wound                             b)       development and growth  
         c)       vegetative propagation                       d)       all of these  
6)       The sex chromosomes of persons subjected to klinefelters syndrome are  
         a)       xxy                                          b)       xyy              
         c)       both of these                                d)       none of these  
7)       Down’s syndrome in human beings is due to  
         a)       An extra sex chromosome                      b)       An extra X-chromosome  
         c)       An extra Y-chromosome                        d)       An extra autosome  
8)       Which of the following category comes under Turners Syndrome  
         a)       A male having two X-chromosome  
         b)       A female having three X-chromosome  
         c)       A male having only one Y-chromosome  
         d)       A female having only one X-chromosome  
9)       Failure  of  the  chromosomes  to  separate  from  each  other  during  meiosis  is
         called  
         a)       Disjunction                                  b)       Crossing over  
         c)       Non-disjunction                              d)       Segregation  
10)      Morphology of chromosome is best studied during  
         a)       Telophase                                    b)       metaphase  
         c)       prophase                                     d)       all  
11)      Spindle fibers are formed by special type of proteins called  
         a)       histone           b)       tubulin           c)       transein         d)       fibrin  
12)      Synapsis occurs during  
         a)       zygotene          b)       pachytene         c)       diplotene        d)   diakinesis  
13)      A bivalent consists of  
         a)       two chromatids                               b)       four chromatids  
         c)       one homologous chromosome                    d)       a typical chromosome  
14)      In meiotic I, nuclear membrane disappears in  
         a)       prophase I        b)       metaphase I       c)       anaphase I       d) telophase I
15)      Which of the following is not related to meiosis  
         a)       involve in sexual reproduction  
         b)       variation are produced  
         c)       maintains chromosome number constant from generation to generation  
         d)       homologous pairs of chromosomes are attached to each other  

Biology chapter 22

         CHAPTER 22        BIOLOGY

1)                  How many pairs of homologous chromosomes are present in pisum sativum
a)         five pairs                                             b)         six pairs          
c)         seven pairs                                           d)         eight pairs
2)                  Which of the following characters of pea plant is dominant
a)         Axial flowers                                      b)         Terminal flower
c)         White flowers                                                 d)         None of these
3)                  Filial is a Latin word. It means
a)         spring                                                  b)         issue               
c)         progeny                                               d)         descendent
4)                  Which of the following condition is hybrid
a)         TT        b)         Tt         c)         tt          d)         All of these
5)                  Which of the following is mono hybrid cross
a)         TT x tt                                                 b)         TTYy x Ttyy
c)         Both of these                                      d)         None of these
6)                  A pure breeding tall plant was crossed to dwarf plant. What would be probability of “Tt” genotype in F2
a)         0.25     b)         0.50     c)         0.75     d)         None of these
7)                  If a heterozygous individual shows the effect of both alleles, the type of inheritance would be
a)         complete dominance                           b)         non dominance
c)         incomplete dominance                        d)         none of these
8)                  The gene which controls ABO group has how many alleles
a)         one      b)         two      c)         three    d)         four
9)                  The gene which controls Rh blood groups has how many alleles
a)         one      b)         two      c)         three    d)         four
10)              The trait “Kernel colour in corn” is controlled by how many pairs of genes
a)         one pair                                               b)         two pairs
c)         three pairs                                            d)         many pairs
11)              The gene which do not follow law of independent assortment
a)         crossed genes                                      b)         linked genes
c)         recessive genes                                    d)         none
12)              During test cross, if all offsprings are phenotypically dominant then parents are
a)         homozygous                                        b)         heterozygous
c)         one homozygous other heterozygous d)         none of these
13)              Genotype ratio of Mendel’s law of independent assortment is
a)         3:1       b)         1:2:1    c)         9:3:3:1             d)         none of these
14)              Which of the following is universal donor
a)         A         b)         B         c)         AB                  d)         O
15)              Which of the following blood group is always heterozygous
a)         A         b)         B         c)         AB                  d)         O
16)              All the genes / alleles found in a breeding population at a given time are collectively called
a)         Gene pool                                            b)         Genotype
c)         Gene frequency                                   d)         Genetic drift
17)              A trait that had two clear-cut alternative forms is called
a)         True breeding                          b)         contrasting
c)         dominant                                 d)         recessive
18)              The trait that appears in F1 is called
a)         Dominant                                b)         Recessive
c)         Both                                        d)         All of these
19)              F2 generation of a monohybrid cross yields the offspring in genotypic ratio of
a)         3:1                   b)         1:1                   c)         1:2:1                d)         1:3:1
20)              The gametes of parents having the genotype RrAA should be as
a)         RA, Ra            b)         ra , ra               c)         RA, rA                        d)         Ra, rA
21)              F2 wrinkled when self-fertilized produced
a)         Round and wrinkled seeds     b)         Only round seeds
c)         Only wrinkled seeds               d)        Seeds in between round and wrinkled
22)              Different alleles of a gene that are expressed in a heterozygous condition are called
a)         Complete dominance              b)         Incomplete dominance
c)         Co-dominance                         d)         Over dominance
23)              No antigen is found in the blood of person having the blood group
a)         A                     b)         B                     c)         AB                  d)         O
24)              The persons having blood group “AB” are known as
a)         Universal donors                     b)         Universal recipients    
c)         Both a and b                           d)         None
25)              Which of the following statements is not correct for erythroblastis foetalis?
a)                  It is because of incompatibility of Rh factor
b)                  The first pregnancy may not suffer from the disease
c)                  It is used to as an evidence for disputed paternity
d)                 A baby born with the disease would suffer from jaundice and anemia.
26)              The inheritance of the continuously varying traits is called
a)         Digenic inheritance                 b)         Polygenic inheritance
c)         Monogenic inheritance            d)         Variable inheritance
27)               Which phenomenon reduces the chances of genetic recombination and variations among offspring?
a)         Linkage                                   b)         Crossing over             
c)         Independent assortment         d)         Dominance
28)              Who first time found white eye mutant in Drosophila?
a)         Morgan                                    b)         Bridges
c)         Correns                                    d)         de Vries
29)              The number of autosomes in human beings is
a)         46                                            b)         45
c)         44                                            d)         42
30)              Which of these traits zigzags from maternal grandfather through a carrier daughter to grandson?
a)         Autosomal                               b)         X-linked
c)         Y-linked                                  d)         Both X- & Y-linked
31)              Which of the following traits is not sex linked recessive?
a)         Haemophilia                            b)         Hypophosphatemic rickets
c)         tfm syndrome                          d)         colour blindness
32)              Which one of the following phenotypic features of Man can be affected only by the genotype?
a)         height                          b)         intelligence
c)         skin colour                   d)         number of different blood group antigens
33)              Which one of the following is an example of discontinuous variation in humans?
a)         height                          b)         intelligence
c)         skin colour                   d)         ABO system of blood groups
34)              A linkage group is composed of genes which
a)                  associate during prophase I                
b)                  are in the same nucleus
c)                  segregate at mitosis    
d)                 are situated on the same chromosome
35)              A woman with normal colour vision, whose father was red-green colour blind, married a red-green colour blind man. What is the probability of her first-born child being red-green colour blind?
a)         0.50                             b)         0.75
c)         0.25                             d)         0.66
36)              Which of the following would cause phenotypic variation among organisms of the same genotype?
a)                  continuous variation within the species
b)                  different varieties of the same species
c)                  different sexes
d)                 exposure to different environments
37)              In the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross, the phenotypes occurred in the ratio 3:1. What does this result indicate?
a)                  the alleles were segregating independently
b)                  polygenic inheritance was involved
c)                  codominance was being shown
d)                 the gene loci were linked
38)              Why does haemophilia usually affect only males, although females may carry the gene responsible for the disease?
a)                  The gene is inactive in the female
b)                  The gene is dominant only in males
c)                  The gene is carried on the X chromosome
d)                 The gene is carried on the Y chromosome
39)              The genotype of a human zygote will differ from that of both parents. Which of the following does not contribute to this variation?
a)                  Chiasmata occurring during meiosis
b)                  Mutation of genes
c)                  Presence of dominant genes
d)                 Random combination of gametes
40)              Which of the following increases the number of different alleles in a population?
a)         crossing over                           b)         gene mutation
c)                  random fusion of gametes     

d)                 reassortment of chromosomes in meiosis 

Biology Chapter 20

   CHAPTER NO. 20        BIOLOGY

1)                  In semi-conservatives replication
a)                  Sequence of original duplex is conserved after one round of replication
b)                  Generate DNA copies of entirely new molecules
c)                  Parental DNA become completely dispersed
d)                 Each strand of daughter molecules will be a mixture of old and new
2)                  The true E-coli replicating enzyme is
a)         DNA polymerase I                  b)         DNA polymerase II
c)         DNA polymerase III               d)         All of the above
3)                  Which statement is correct?
a)                  Leading strand elongates away from the replication fork
b)                  Lagging strand elongates towards the replication fork
c)                  Lagging strand elongates away from the replication fork
d)                 Both A and B
4)                  In alkaptonuria
a)                  Patient’s urine contains homogenetisic acid
b)                  Urine becomes black
c)                  Both A and B
d)                 Patient does not produce urine
5)                  The sequence of nucleotides that determines the amino acid sequence of a protein is
a)         Chromosome                           b)         DNA
c)         RNA                                       d)         Gene
6)                  Central dogma is
a)                  Transfer of information from DNA to mRNA
b)                  Basic mechanism of reading and expressing genes
c)                  Transfer of information from RNA to proteins
d)                 Synthesis of all three types of RNA
7)                  In eukaryotes newly synthesized mRNA
a)                  Travels a large distance from nucleus to cytoplasm
b)                  Is directly released into the cytoplasm
c)                  Contains a cap and tail
d)                 Both A and C
8)                  Which 3 codons are nonsense codons?
a)         UAA, UAU, UUA                 b)         UGA, UAG, UAA
c)         UGG, UGA, UAU                 d)         UGG, UAA, UAG
9)                  In mitochondria UGA is / specifies
a)         Stop codon                              b)         Tryptophan
c)         Initiation codon                      d)         Nonsense codon
10)              Initiation complex in translation is composed of
a)                  Ribosome and aminoacyl-tRNa
b)                  Ribosome and tRNA
c)                  tRNa and aminoacyl-tRNa
d)                 None of the above
11)              Examples of chromosomal aberrations are
a)         Sickle cell anemia                    b)         Phenylketonuria
c)         down’s syndrome                   d)         Both A and B
12)              Strand of DNA which is not transcribed is called
a)         Antisense                                b)         Template
c)         Coding                                    d)         None of these

13)              Which is incorrect about nucleosome
a)         2 turns of DNA coiled round             b)         8 histones as acidic proteins
c)         200 nucleotides                       d)         None of these
14)              DNA histone complex is called
a)         Nucleotides                             b)         Chromatin
c)         Nucleolus                                d)         None of these
15)              The phenomenon in which heat killed bacteria of one type could have hereditary effect on bacteria of another type is called:
a)         Transaction                              b)         Translocation
c)         Transformation                        d)         Transduction
16)              Nucleotides are joined with one another through:
a)         Phosphoric acid                       b)         Ribonucleic acid
c)         Deoxyribonucleic acid            d)         Nucleic acid
17)              DNA molecule is a / an:
a)         Mononucleotide                      b)         Dinucleotide
c)         Polynucleotide                        d)         All of the above
18)                                       are made up of half RNA and half protein:
a)         Ribosomes                               b)         Mitochondria
c)         Thylakoid                                d)         Nucleus
19)              When some extra segment of chromosome is found, is the situation is called:
a)         Deletion                                  b)         Addition
c)         Inversion                                 d)         Transduction
20)              Genes are made up of:
a)         Histones                                  b)         Polynucleotides
c)         Hydrocarbons                                     d)         Lipoproteins
21)              Beads in chromosomes are formed by:
a)                  DNA molecule taking one turn
b)                  DNA molecule taking two turns
c)                  RNA molecule taking one turn
d)                 RNA molecule taking two turns
22)              Which one of the following amino acids replaces glutamic acid in sickle cell?
a)         Valine                                      b)         Glycine
c)         Lysine                                                 d)         Alanine
23)              The base sequence on one strand of DNA is A-T-T-G; the sequence for mRNA is:
a)         T-A-A-C                                 b)         U-A-A-C
c)         A-T-T-G                                  d)         T-U-U-C
24)              The potentiality for replication of deoxyribose nucleic acid depends on
a)                  Covalent bonds between bases.
b)                  Electrovalent bonds between base and phosphate groups
c)                  High energy bonds between phosphate groups
d)                 Hydrogen bonds between bases.
25)              The complementary messenger RNA triplet for the DNA triplet GAT would read
a)         CTA                                        b)         CTC
c)         CUA                                       d)         TAG
26)              If 30% of the bases in a DNA molecule are adenine, what percentage of the bases are guanine?
a)         15%                                         b)         40%
c)         20%                                         d)         70%
27)              Which one of the following statements correctly describes the transcription of DNA?
a)                  It produces amino acids         
b)                  It results in an increased DNA synthesis
c)                  It produces messenger RNA
d)                 It is a semi-conservative process

28)              Which of the following basis is never found in RNA?
a)         Adenine                                  b)         Uracil
c)         Cytosine                                  d)         Thymine
29)              Which of the following is involved in the inter-chain linkage between complementary strands of DNA?
a)                  Covalent bonding between the sugar and nitrogenous bases
b)                  Covalent bonding between the sugar and the phosphate groups
c)                  Covalent bonding between adjacent sugar groups
d)                 Hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases
30)              The insulin molecule is composed of two polypeptide chains, one consisting of 20 amino acids and the other consisting of 31. What is the minimum number of base pairs of DNA required to code for this molecule?
a)         20                                            b)         51
c)         102                                          d)         153
31)              One complete turn of the double helix of DNA contains 10 pairs of bases and is 3.4 nm long. What is the approximate length of the DNA coding sequence of lysozyme, a protein of 129 aminoa cids?
a)         132 nm                                    b)         113 nm
c)         66 nm                                      d)         44 nm
32)              What is the effect of the enzyme DNA ligase?
a)                  DNA is broken up at specific sites
b)                  DNA fragments are joined together
c)                  DNA replication occurs
d)                 DNA transcription occurs
33)              Chromosomes acquire different shapes such as that of I, j and v at the time of
a)         Prophase                                  b)         Metaphase
c)         Anaphase                                d)         Interphase
34)              The first evidence of hereditary nature of DNA was provided by
a)         McLeod                                  b)         McCarty
c)         Griffith                                    d)         Avery
35)              Which of the followings is not true about DNA?
a)         C = G                                      b)         A = T
c)         %G = %C                                d)         %A = %G
36)              One of the followings is not a monomer of RNA
a)         Guanine ribonucleotide           b)         Cytosine ribonucleotide
c)         Cytosine ribonucleotide          d)         Adenine deoxyribonucleotide
37)              The enzyme that plays supporting role in DNA replication
a)         DNA polymserase I                b)         DNA polymerase II
c)         DNA polymerase                    d)         DNA polymerase III
38)              An RNA primer is constructed by
a)         DNA polymerase III               b)         Rna polymerase
c)         Primase                                    d)         DNA ligase
39)              Which strand elongates toward the replicating fork during replication of DNA
a)         Lagging strand                        b)         Okazaki fragments
c)         Leading strand                        d)         Both a and c
40)              Genetic code depends on
a)         Three nucleotides                    b)         The kind of nucleotide

c)         Specific sequence                    d)         All of these